I direct your attention to the following article, which I've decided to post 
in its entirety.
The article states, in part, that "[i]n 97 percent of the cases where the 
police conduct an actual (child abuse) investigation, they are not able to 
substantiate the allegation, so no criminal charges are filed."
I was wondering if anyone might be able to substantiate or refute this 
gure.
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