-=> Quoting Dennis Martin to Jim Casto <=-
JC> Uh, you want to be a little more specific as to where in the
Constitution
JC> find that slavery was ever _legal_ under U.S. Constitutional law? The
firs
JC> time I even _find_ the word "slavery" is in the Thirteenth Amendment
that
JC> specifically states that slavery is _illegal_.
JC>
JC> Perhaps it was considered by some to be "legal" simply because there
was N
JC> federal law saying that it was _illegal_.
DM> Jim, Article IV, Sec. 2 provides some insight into the leagality of
DM> slavery. Paragraph two states:
DM> "No person held ins ervice or labout in one state under the laws
DM> thereof, escaping into another, shall be in consequence of anytlaw or
DM> reguliation therein, be discharged from such service or labour, but
DM> shall be delivered up on claim of the party to whome such service or
DM> labour may be due.
DM> (Please excuse the typos, but I was typing while reading my
DM> encyclopedia.
DM> This is printed in my 1952 edition of the Encyclopedia Brittanica.
That Constitutional statement could apply to indentured servants or
nvicts.
DM> The term "held in service or labour" means that a person is no
DM> voluntarily in service, (held). This may apply to criminals fleeing
DM> the state, but the law is written in such a way that it's unclear as
DM> to whether the "party to whom such service or labour" is a legal
DM> jurisdiction, (as in an escaped prisoner) or a wealthy landowner.
DM> This law is what made the Underground Subway into Canada necessary.
DM> Otherwise, and escaped slave could have been protected by escaping
DM> into a nearby "free state."
Again, you make _my_ point when you say the "law is unclear". BTW, if you
do some careful research other than encyclopedias, I think you might find
that the Underground Railroad has been overrated. Shenkman covers this myth
pretty well in "Legends, Lies & Cherished Myths of American History".
DM> Also, Article I, Sec. 9 covers the "migration or importation" question
DM> quite extensively. By importation, don't they mean "for slavery"?
DM> This too, from the Encyclopedia Brittanica. You may have to find an
DM> old one, as the new ones may have been edited, especially those on
DM> disk.
DM> The use of terms such as slave and slavery are not used, but the
DM> similer, more "PC" terms are easy to understand.
Note that Article 1, Section 9 reads: "The Migration or Importation of
such Persons as the _States_ now exisitng shall think proper to admit,
shall _not_ be prohibited by the _Congress_ prior to the Year one
thousand eight hundred and eight..."
(emphasis is mine)
So _who_ could be Migrated or Imported whether it be slave, indentured
servant, convict, indigent person, etc. was decided by the _state_ NOT
the federal government.
You and Sondra have pretty much stated the pro-slavery arguments that
were made in the 1830-50s forty to fifty years after the Constitution was
written.
DM> I'm not a supporter of slavery, just one who's a stickler for accuracy
DM> when discussing this dark episode of this nation's history.
So, in the interest of "accuracy", let me reiterate the original statement.
The _original_ statement made in this echo was that "slavery was
Constitutional". That implies _Federal_ law. _Not_ state law. I didn't say
that slavery was (or was not) legal (or illegal) in some states. At the time
of the Constitutional Convention(s) in some states it was and in some it
wasn't. And it might depend on the exact moment in time. For example, the
importation of blacks was declared illegal in Georgia in 1735. Within
fifteen years, the practice was declared legal again.
The point _I_ am _trying_ to make is that at the time of the Constitutional
Conventions, the authors of the _Constitution_ were creating a _Federal_
document, not a _state_ document. They were _clearly_ trying to keep the
rights of the states to make their own laws _separate_ from the federal law.
The authors of the Constitution were "operating" under the theory of
natural
law" (as opposed to "positive law") as far as the _federal_ government was
concerned.
To clarify "natural" and "positive" law.
" LAW.
All the rules requiring or prohibiting certain actions are known as law.
In the most general sense, there are two kinds of law _natural_ law and
_positive_ law. _Natural_ law has been recognized since the ancient world to
be a general body of rules of right conduct and justice common to all
mankind. This concept grew from the observation of the operation of the
laws of nature and their uniformity. _Positive_ law, on the other hand,
consists of regulations formulated by the heads of a country or society.
In many cases, _natural_ laws have been written into _positive_ laws by
governments. The prohibition against killing, for example, is common to
virtually all of mankind, and most nations have enacted laws against it."
Excerpted from Compton's Interactive Encyclopedia.
Copyright 1994, 1995 Compton's NewMedia, Inc.
The emphasis is mine. Notice that nowhere in the Constitution is "killing"
(the crime of murder) _specifically_ made illegal. I suspect, however, that
at the time of the Constitution, several of the colonies/states had laws
related to "murder". Therefore, at the federal level it was "natural" law,
at the colonial/state level, "positive" law.
-=-=-=-=-
And to quote an abolitionist point of view from the pre-Civil War era:
From: "Not So!" by Paul F. Boller, Jr.
"The word 'slave' he [Frederick Douglass] noted, appeared nowhere in the
_Constitution_, and if the document were to fall from the sky onto a land
unfamiliar with slavery, the people there would never dream there was
anything in it _sanctioning_ human bondage. He also pointed out that there
were numerous phrases in the Constitution which were clearly _incompatible_
with slavery."
(The [] and emphasis is mine.)
The text by Boller goes on to cite the Preamble and several clauses Douglass
referred to such as 'prohibition of bills of attainder', 'trial by jury',
'right of habeas corpus', 'due process of law', 'rights of security', etc.
And also from: "Not So!"
"The Constitution , in short, was a charter of freedom, not a slaveholder's
document."
So you and Sondra can argue the pro-slavery position if you like (I am
fully aware that neither of you are advocates of slavery) but I guess I
have to take the abolitionist viewpoint that slavery was _neither_ legal
OR illegal under the _federal_ Constitution until the passage and
ratification of the Thirteenth Amendment. At that time (1865) it had
apparently become clear to the _federal_ government that the states were
NOT able to adequately resolve this issue at the _state_ level, so a
_Constitutional_ amendment was required.
Hence, another of the Civil War issues: "state's rights".
Note that to this day, slavery is one of the few "natural" laws that the
U.S. government has seen fit to turn into a "positive" law at the federal
level. There is _still_ NO _federal_ _Constitutional_ law _specifically_
addressing "murder", for example.
So, were the authors of the Constitution _deliberately_ avoiding the issue
of slavery? Were they _deliberately_ avoiding the issue of other "natural"
laws? Was there some sort of a compromise made to get the Constitution
approved at all? IF the authors of the Constitution HAD put a SPECIFIC
Article in the Constitution outlawing slavery from the very beginning would
it have been ratified? (It required nine states to ratify.) Note that
according to "The World Almanac" the basis for the Bill of Rights was based
on the Declaration of Rights of Virginia, written by George Mason in 1776.
"Mason, a Virginia delegate to the Constitutional Convention, did not sign
the Constitution and opposed its ratification on the grounds that it did
not sufficiently oppose slavery or safeguard individual rights."
quote from "The World Almanac - 1997"
It's been interesting in my U.S. Constitution class to actually read some
of the opinions set down by the Supreme Court and just _exactly_ what was
being argued. We had one just the other day about a contraceptive law in
Connecticut from the 1960s. The case, when it got to the Supreme Court, was
NOT whether the accused were guilty or innocent. It was about the
onnecticut
law. And what was the issue? "Did it violate 'Constitutionally' protected
privacy?" You would probably be amazed at the conclusions drawn by some of
those learned men on the Supreme Court. (I like Justice Stewart's comment
that the CT law was "an uncommonly silly law", but that doesn't make it
un-Constitutional. )
But it is always clear in class as to what is _Constitutionally_ being
argued and what the _actual_ crime might have been.
BTW, in the CT case, the conviction _was_ reversed by the Supreme Court, but
the CT law remained in effect as far as I know and it could still be in
effect for all I know. As the Justices basically said... it's up to the
_state_ to change a _state_ law.
Jim
--- Blue Wave v2.12
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* Origin: NorthWestern Genealogy BBS-Tualatin OR 503-692-0927 (1:105/212)
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