On 01-03-98 Day Brown wrote to John Boone...
Hello Day and thanks for writing,
[snip]
DB> JB> Day, this comes down to, will we or will we NOT agree on
DB> JB> values. I realize it has been you thoughts that "reason"
DB> JB> alone or perhaps control the "values" thus giving a common
DB> JB> basis. It has been my contention rather that reason alone
DB> JB> will not be sufficient.
DB> I agree that reason has not been sufficient for *most* people,
DB> who, for one reason or another, do not think well. But, that is
Your logic follows, if any person or most people is/are not able
to reason out "values", then they are reason deficient (do
not think well).
Now, let us test this logic, from Robert H. Bork's "The
Tempting of America" page 254:
The state of affairs in moral theory is summed up,
accurately so far as I can tell, by Alasdair MacIntyre.
After canvassing the failure of a succession of thinkers
to justify particular systems of morality, MacIntyre says
that if all that were involved was the failure of a
succession of particular arguments, "it might appear
that the trouble was merely that Kierkegaard, Kant,
Diderot, Hume, Smith and their other contempories were
not adroit enough in constructing arguments, so that
appropiate strategy would be to wait until some more
powerful mind applied itself to the problems.
And just this had been the strategy of the acedemic
philosophical world, even though many professional
philosophers might be a little embarassed to admit it."
I -assume- you believe the list of Kierkegaard,
Kant, Diderot, Hume and Smith were "good thinkers."
Please notice, the list of good thinkers (not deficient
in thinking) but were unable to arrive at a "logical" set
of values.
To wit, just because, an individual or a group of in-
dividuals can't or doesn't arrive at some "logical set
values" doesn't mean they are deficient in thinking (don't
"think good") unless you are willing to say thinkers like
Kierkegaard, Kant, Dierot, Hume and Smith are deficient
in thinking, not good thinkers.
DB> not to say that it cannot, as Aristotle provides an example.
You are correct, such evidence doesn't mean it is
impossible. However, from previous examples, it looks
like it isn't likely.
DB> JB> DB> thirty years, I can hardly imagine anyone with the hubris to
[snip]
DB> JB> You almost seem to say the data is it.
[snip]
DB> I do knot know that we will all reach compleat agreement, just am
DB> saying that is the trend of development, which agreed, has a long
DB> way to go. I just do not know that it won't get there.
As do I, on the other hand, I just don't know that we -will-
get there.
DB> There is considerable historical and anthropologic evidence to
DB> show that values are changed over time by adjustments to the real
DB> changes in the social and physical enviornment. As the world is
Values have changed, however, there is considerable historical
evidence via Thomas Sowell's "Migration and Cultures" that
cultures such as Chinese, Jews, Germans, Italians, Indians
(not to be confused by American Indians) -shared- common values
such as hard work, frugaliy, emphasis of education, etc over
thousands of years and many different countries, the world.
Lest, this sound contradictory, Sowell's point, such
commanality were a result not of -reason- but rather
trial and error.
DB> well on the way to becoming homogeneous, I would expect that value
As long as there are -individuals-, different geographical
terrians, etc, the world won't be homogeneous.
DB> system which is in the most concurrance with those conditions will
DB> be adopted.
Take care,
John
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