Matthew Johnson wrote:

> >>
> >The Hebrew translation of Jn 1:1 uses "Dabar."  So I guess one is
not
> >out of line to conclude that it is, indeed, relevant.
>
> Oh, come now, Loren! Why would _anyone_ consider this translation
authorative?
>
Who said anything about authorative?   It is relevant in that Dabar was
chosen to represent Logos.
>
> >The point is, it was typical for Jewish boys** to study up to the
age
> >twelve.  At that time there was a determination as to who was
capable
> >to continue on in their training.  It is interesting to read of
Jesus
> >at the age 12 offering the Passover sacrifice which means that he
had
> >memorized the books of Moses by that age as that being a
prerequisite.
>
> But where did you read of THIS? Nowhere in Scripture are we told that
He
> did this.
>
You would be well served to take some Jewish studies.  John's gospel,
like Rev, are immersed in Hebraic concepts and OT teachings.  I know it
is true of the Evangelical churches, and it goes without saying of the
RCC, and I have seen no evidence of it being otherwise in the EOC, but
the scriptures are rarely looked at from a Jewish perspective, let
alone translated or exegeted taking that paradigm into consideration.
The gospels were written from a Jewish perspective about a Jewish
Messiah speaking to Jewish leaders, listeners and disciples about
Jewish covenants, promises and expectations, more times than not,
expounding the Jewish scriptures.  And it is to the certain loss of the
historical church for failing to recognize its roots and relevance.

That you ask this question only leads me to conclude that you have
little understanding of the Jewish culture of that day.  If you read
Jewish scholars commenting on the NT (have you ever even seen one?),
you would become knowledgeable of  things such as this.   Have you ever
read the Jewish perspective on Jn 8 as understood in the context of
"the Prophet" motif which begins in the prologue and continues on
through John's gospel?  Have you ever read a strong scriptural
suggestion of just what Jesus might have written that would have cause
the "elders" to leave first only to have the others follow without
submitting to Christ's command to throw their stones?

I know many who have made trips over to Israel only to have the
scriptures come alive to them because they were finally able to put a
"face" to the scriptures; to understand why even when coming from the
north, the scriptures speak of them "going UP to Jerusalem."  And in
the same light, I would say that studying the NT from a Jewish
perspective is equally revealing.

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