In article , zach says...
>
>
>
>
>Matthew Johnson wrote:
>> In article , zach says...
>>
>> [snip]
>>
>> >Matthew, what do you think of the implication in Corinthians that
>God
>> >kills some people (their fleshly physical form) so that they will
>not
>> >be damned by their behavior?
>>
>> I think it would be a good idea for Him to do that to people who
>ignore the FAQ
>> like you just did: give the explicit reference! What verse _are_ you
>> misinterpreting this way?
>
>1 Corinthians 5:4-5, regarding sexual immorality (a specific instance
>in this case, but the advice seems general).

And whether you read it as 'general' or as 'specific', there is nothing about
'death' here. "Destruction of the flesh" is more vague than that.
It could mean
mere destruction of fleshly desires. And there is NOTHING about them not being
"damned for their behavior". That is somebody's interpretation.

>Or 1 Cornthians 11:27-34, regarding judgment upon those who abuse the
>Lord's Supper.

Now this is more pertinent, since at least some of those being disciplined died.
But here too, there is NOTHING about them not being "damned for their
behavior".

[snip]


> I would think a
>person who seems as knowledgeable as you would have known the verses to
>which I was referring,

And if you had referred to them by their _content_ instead of by a biased
interpretation of them, I would have recognized them. But you did not do this.
Instead, you showed great presumption by assuming that anyone who knew the
verses would know your interpretation of them.


 especially since I gave you the book. Point
>taken, though.


-- 
---------------------------
Subudcat se sibi ut haereat Deo
quidquid boni habet, tribuat illi a quo factus est.
(St. Augustine, Ser. 96)

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