zach wrote:

>
> "Turning them over to Satan" means...? (or, could possibly mean?)
>
We read in 2 Cor the result of having turned this non-repentant man
over to Satan.  Paul there enjoins the assembly to allow the repentant
man back into the assembly.  Obviously it was to rebuff the man, not
that he lost salvation but that he was purified by the hand of God
through Satan!  Is this not how He worked in the OT?  Is this not the
future for non-believing Israel?  (Zeph.)
>
> > >Or 1 Cornthians 11:27-34, regarding judgment upon those who abuse
> the
> > >Lord's Supper.
> >
> > Now this is more pertinent, since at least some of those being
> disciplined died.
> > But here too, there is NOTHING about them not being "damned for
their
> behavior".
>
> Is the phrase "falling asleep" or "fallen asleep"
every applied to
> non-believers?
>
Why not address what has been replied to you?

As to your question, no.  "Sleep" is a gentle term which in not used
for non believers.

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