>
> Yes, you would have to ignore some very clear scriptures in order to
> accept that doctrine. For example, He 6:4-6,
>
Which is contextually written to 1st Century Jewish believers
(brethren) who are considering returning to the temple system of
atoning for their sins.  So first off, this no longer has 21st C.
application.  Secondly, loss of salvation is not the point but rather
that the old way of atoning for sins has been superceeded.  This
thought continues on into the epistle.
>
> Even though these people were 'saved' (they tasted the heavenly gift,
> shared in the Holy Spirit, tasted the goodness of the word of God,
and
> tasted the powers of the coming age) it still will be "impossible"
for
> them to be "brought back to repentance" because of their bad conduct.
> They will be 'lost' forever.
>
IF you want to read that into the text, then one is equally justified
to say, that though it is impossible for men to renew such, it is not
impossible for God.
>
> The founder of Christianity made this statement at Mt 24:13,
>
> "But the one who endures to the end, he will be saved."  (NASB)
>
Context?  The context is the Jew who finds himself in the Tribulation.
If he endures till the end, he will walk on into the Millennial
Kingdom.

> Thus according to the founder himself, attaining salvation is an
> ongoing conditional situation, only achieved at the "end".
>

> ***********************************
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JW's cant even correctly translate Jn 1:1c so why would we listen to
them as having authority in translating any other passage of scripture.
 They do not believe in the deity of Christ therefore they are without
the Spirit, and being without the Spirit, the scriptures are closed to
them.  They interpret via human rationalization.

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