In article , zach says...
>
>Matthew Johnson wrote:

[snip]

>"Destruction of the flesh" is more vague than that. It
>could mean
>> mere destruction of fleshly desires. And there is NOTHING about them
>not being
>> "damned for their behavior". That is somebody's interpretation.
>
>"Turning them over to Satan" means...? (or, could possibly mean?)

Ah, at last, the parenthetical comment _SO_ badly needed here! Scripture does
NOT tell us what the phrase means. And the range of "possible
meaning" (if you
insist on sola scriptura) is quite wide.

But since I do NOT insist on sola scriptura, I DO have an answer: it means
'excommunication'.

>> >Or 1 Cornthians 11:27-34, regarding judgment upon those who abuse
>the
>> >Lord's Supper.
>>
>> Now this is more pertinent, since at least some of those being
>disciplined died.
>> But here too, there is NOTHING about them not being "damned for their
>behavior".
>
>Is the phrase "falling asleep" or "fallen asleep"
every applied to
>non-believers?

Ah, what a dangerous assumption have you revealed with THIS question! You seem
to assume that every believer is 'saved' (i.e., already has eternal salvation).

Bad idea!


--
---------------------------
Subudcat se sibi ut haereat Deo
quidquid boni habet, tribuat illi a quo factus est.
(St. Augustine, Ser. 96)

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