In article , lsenders{at}hotmail.com
says...

>Matthew Johnson wrote:
>
>> Why do you ask, "have a choice... OR was it God..."?
THis is a false
>dichotomy.
>> Of _course_ he had a choice. And it was in foreknowledge of that
>choice that God
>> chose him to be the "chosen vessel for spreading His name before the
>Gentiles"
>> (Acts 9:15).
>>
>and this is a wrong use of the word "foreknowledge."  Again, do a word
>study and see how it is used in scripture.

I find it amusing, Loren, that you so easily and vainly imagine that a real word
study will support you. It does not. Look at Acts 26:5 for a good counterexample
to your false claim that the word denotes 'relationship' rather than cognition.

If you had any sense, Loren, if you were not blinded by your fanatical desire to
rationalize your broken moral compass, you would realize that when the word
denotes 'relationship', it does so in _dependence_ on denoting cognition!

>It is not about *pre*viewing.

Do you have ANY grounds for this asertion, other than your own eagerness to see
support for your own broken theology?

>  God didn't chose him based upon knowing his choice.

So you would like us to believe. But some of us have noticed that your desire is
based on _pagan fatalism_, not on Christianity.

>It
>is all of grace, not of merit.

Who said anything about 'merit' here? I most certainly did not. This is just
another of your favorite red herrings. Even foreknowledge of Paul's great deeds
does not give him 'merit' in God's eyes. It does, however, give God reason to
show even greater mercy to Paul, which is exactly what He did.

How could you MISS this, Loren? Didn't you notice that Paul was including
himself when he mentioned "vessels of mercy" in Rom 9:23?


-- 
---------------------------
Subudcat se sibi ut haereat Deo
quidquid boni habet, tribuat illi a quo factus est.
(St. Augustine, Ser. 96)

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