In article , ARBermudez3{at}yahoo.com
says...
>
>
>
>Just a few questions and comments about some disturbing things I read
>on this thread:
>
>"The starting place for textual criticism was the corpus of the Textus
>Receptus."
>
>Actually, Jerome did his share of textual criticism centuries earlier
>when collating Greek and Hebrew texts for his revision of the Old
>Latin.

You were quite right to correct him. He would have been much more accurate with
the addition of a single word, saying:

>"The starting place for MODERN textual criticism was the corpus of
the Textus
>Receptus."

>
>"Copying is how the Textus Receptus was preserved for us (didn't
>Constantine order 50 copies to be prepared for churches?)"
>
>No, since the Textus Receptus is based on manuscripts that were not
>around in Constatine’s time.

This is true, but the TR really is just a slightly degenerate form of the
Byzantine text, which was already around even as early as Chrysostom, if not as
early as Constantine. And the copies that Constantine ordered very likely did
contribute to the formation of the Byzantine Text.

>
>"there are a great many people who DO
>blame the Catholic Church for the Textus Receptus."
>
>What could the Catholic Church possibly have to do with the Textus
>Receptus?

Quite a bit, actually.

>  The Church has never used the TR.

What? No, that is not true. Don't you realize that it was Catholics who _copied_
the manuscripts used for the TR? Of course, they were not _Roman_ Catholics. But
most of the copying referred to took place while Rome and Constantinople were
still in communion with each other.

>  The Vulgate was official
>text for centuries and the church made no official translation of Greek
>manuscripts until after 1944.

True. But so what if the first _translation_ was after 1944? Greek Uniates were
using the Greek NT without translation, in a text very similar to the TR.


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