Matthew Johnson wrote:
> In article , zach says...
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >Matthew Johnson wrote:
> >> In article , zach
says...
> >>
> >> [snip]
> >>
> >> >Matthew, what do you think of the implication in Corinthians that
> >God
> >> >kills some people (their fleshly physical form) so that they will
> >not
> >> >be damned by their behavior?
> >>
> >> I think it would be a good idea for Him to do that to people who
> >ignore the FAQ
> >> like you just did: give the explicit reference! What verse _are_
you
> >> misinterpreting this way?
> >
> >1 Corinthians 5:4-5, regarding sexual immorality (a specific
instance
> >in this case, but the advice seems general).
>
> And whether you read it as 'general' or as 'specific', there is
nothing about
> 'death' here. "Destruction of the flesh" is more vague than that. It
could mean
> mere destruction of fleshly desires. And there is NOTHING about them
not being
> "damned for their behavior". That is somebody's interpretation.

"Turning them over to Satan" means...? (or, could possibly mean?)

> >Or 1 Cornthians 11:27-34, regarding judgment upon those who abuse
the
> >Lord's Supper.
>
> Now this is more pertinent, since at least some of those being
disciplined died.
> But here too, there is NOTHING about them not being "damned for their
behavior".

Is the phrase "falling asleep" or "fallen asleep" every
applied to
non-believers?

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