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echo: bible-study
to: All
from: Matthew Johnson matthew_
date: 2005-02-28 01:36:00
subject: Re: Q re: Romans 6:11

In article , Max Mulder says...
>
>Simon Woods schrieb:
>> Hi
>>
>> I don't know much NT Greek so ...
>>
>> Why would Paul use the middle/passive deponent for the imperative 'reckon'?
>> What does it express/convey which the active voice doesn't?
>>
>
>Is there an active voice? I think this is a deponens.

Do they call this 'deponens' in German? Just in case anyone is confused, the
English word is 'deponent'. And Smyth gives a pretty good explanation of why
this verb is deponent in sec. 1729.

Go to http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cache/perscoll_Greco-Roman.html, look for
"Herbert Weir Smyth. 'A Greek Grammar for Colleges'", click on
that, and then
enter 1729 on the Go to line & click the arrow or hit return. You may want to
click on the cross-reference to 810 also.

It is well worth the effort, when learning NT Greek or analyzing the Greek of
the NT even at an advanced level, to make good use of the resources at Perseus.


[snip]


--
---------------------------
Subudcat se sibi ut haereat Deo
quidquid boni habet, tribuat illi a quo factus est.
(St. Augustine, Ser. 96)

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