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echo: bible-study
to: All
from: Matthew Johnson matthew_
date: 2005-02-24 21:36:00
subject: Re: Was `Re: Once saved, always saved? 2 JOHN QUESTION`

In article , lsenders{at}hotmail.com
says...
>
>
>
>James wrote:
>
>
>> >
>> > As I was reading 2 John the other day ,
>
>> ---------------------------
>> > 2 John Chapter 1 verse 9 (NIV)
>> > "Anyone who runs ahead and does not continue in the teaching of
>> > Christ does not have God; whoever continues in the teaching has
>both
>> > the Father and the Son."
>> >
>
>> One can find the 'once saved always saved' situation in the Bible if
>> they look for it, and ignore the other scriptures.
>>
>And those who argue against it fail to read either 1 Jn or 2 Jn in the
>Greek to understand the nature of John's points.

That is not true. When will you learn your lesson and stop pretending to know
Greek?

>  It's much like
>reading Jn 21:15ff in the English and not realizing the Greek word play
>of Christ using one Greek word for love and Peter using another.

Here the pretence looks particularly ridiculous. Even the Greeks themselves do
not support your interpretation of this.

>There have been those who use 1Jn 1 to teach that perfect obedience is
>required or one loses their salvation.

Ah, but now you are pulling a "bait-and-switch" on us. You boldly
claimed that
all who oppose your false dogma don't understand the Greek, and now you are able
to criticize only one small subset of these people.

I understand the implication of the tenses fully. But I do NOT find any support
for your disastrous bad dogma in any of John's epistles.

[snip]


-- 
---------------------------
Subudcat se sibi ut haereat Deo
quidquid boni habet, tribuat illi a quo factus est.
(St. Augustine, Ser. 96)

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