hedrick{at}geneva.rutgers.edu wrote:
> Gordon  asks about blasphemy against the
> Holy Spirit.
>
> >If one has blasphemed the Holy Ghost
>
> The context in Mark 3 is suggestive. Both before and after Mark 3:29,
> people are attributing Jesus' actions to Satan rather than God. This
> suggests that Jesus is talking about refusing to recognize the
actions
> of the Holy Spirit.  In this instance it is attributing them to
Satan,
> but in the modern world the equivalent would be seeing them as just
> chance.

There is no modern equivalent.  One cannot blaspheme the Spirit today
as in the context of the NT era.   In John 1:14, "dwelt" and
"beheld"
speaks to a moment in time where the Logos temporarily "pitched His
tent" among men such that they could carefully scrutinize Him.  Vv.
16-18 add support to this unique dispensation.  John,
uncharacteristically for the theological nature of the prologue, felt
forced to include the other disciples at this point when he writes, "we
all received."  He again emphasizes the uniqueness of this
"theater" in
1 John 1:1-3.

The unveiling of God's essence has never occurred.  However, the real
character of God was seen in the life of the Son during His advent.
The uniqueness of this brought with it a greater accountability to
those who not only observed Him, but ate with Him, walked with Him, and
even debated with Him.  To have been in His presence, and "theatered"
the things He did and said only then to account such things as
resulting from Satanic empowerment was uniquely blasphemous.  It cannot
be experienced today or anytime after the resurrection.
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