Cummins to Brown, 4-14-98:
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DB:
-To some considerable degree, it is an example of the lack of true
-clarity in the Bible, that there are so many interpretations of a
-document that says, as most of you do seem to agree, is the 'word
-of God'. If it is so clear, then why in heaven's name, is it so,
-that so many who ascribe to it, do not understand it? If it were
-the word of God, it would be much more believeable to the rest of
-us, if you all would agree on just what it says.
>The Bible is clear. People like Mark Bloss don't care what the
>Bible clearly says. When the Bible clearly condemns homosexuality
>because it is unnatural for a man to booger another man, Bloss
>is the type of person who would argue that the verse only applies
>to heterosexuals because it is natural for a homosexual to booger
>another man. Clarity cannot stand against such reason.
Well, I somehow doubt that you would accept the Bible's rule here,
either. The relevant passage is:
If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have
committed an abomination; they shall be put to death; their
blood is upon them.
If a man takes a wife and her mother also, it is depravity; they
shall be burned to death, both he and they, that there may be no
depravity among you.
[Leviticus 20.13-14 NRSV]
Do you believe that homosexuals should be "put to death" as their
"blood is upon them"? If you don't believe that, you reject what
the Bible says. If you do believe it, but are not writing from
death row in a prison whereto you were condemned by reason of your
murder of a homosexual, then you are a hypocrite.
The Bible was quite specific about the use of words in these
passages. Only in the second, which describes incest, rather
than homosexuality, is the penalty of burning prescribed. And
the mother of the wife is included in the burning penalty.
I doubt that you accept this rule either.
I rather think you pick and choose what to believe in the Bible.
>Cult leaders distort the Bible for their own gain. Liberals
>like Bloss simply distort the Bible to destroy it. None of
>this has anything to do with the lack of clarity of the Bible.
Actually Bloss is not as far off as you might think. The
Leviticus passage says "if a man lies with a male AS WITH A
WOMAN...". If one assumes that the action must be done with
intent (that is, that the man INTENDED to lie with a male as with
a woman) if a penalty is prescribed, then such a man would have to
be heterosexual to know what it is to lie "with a woman".
Intent implies knowledge.
Since the Leviticus rule plainly prescribes a penalty, it must be
understood to presuppose actor intent. It therefore condemns
homosexuality only where practiced by heterosexuals (who would
know what is necessary to form the requisite intent).
The only way you can avoid this interpretation is to deny that
Biblical penalties presuppose actor intent.
But if you deny this presupposition then you shall have to admit
that these penalties follow even where the act condemned was in
fact accidental, and not intended by the actor at all.
Frankly, I highly doubt that you believe that the Bible condemns
homosexuality where the act was not intentionally performed.
Bob
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