In article , Simon Woods says...
>
>
>
>
>"Matthew Johnson"  wrote in message
>news:cq52a7$57s$1{at}nikalinux.nikaconsulting.net...
>>
>>
>> In article , marv says...
>> >
>> >
>> >
>> >Jesus is a man and NOT GOD. Nowhere in the bible does it say that Jesus
>is
>> >GOD.
>>
>> Actually, yes it does. Many have tried to deny it, but no where is it more
>clear
>> than in Titus 2:13, which reads:
>>
>>    awaiting our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory
>>    of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ,  (Tit 2:13 RSVA)
>>
>> Earlier translations were hesitant, but modern scholarship has finally
>confirmed
>> what the Greeks have told us all along: it is "great God and
Savior Jesus
>> Christ", NOT "great God, and Savior Jesus Christ"!
>
>Matthew
>
>Could you explain/give me a link to a discussion of this. How does the Greek
>indicate this? (Greek newbie)

Yes, I can. Here is one: http://www.theopedia.com/Granville_Sharp%27s_Rule.

It also refers to James White's discussion on a separate link, but that is
better kept in the background until you are ready for detailed apologetics. So
start with tht Theopedia article, and go to White's if you must have more
details.

Oh, and when you see how the "Granvill Sharp's Rule" is
formulated, you will see
why it is NOT mentioned in most introductory texts. Yet strange as it is, it
really is remarkable that the only 'exception' is in 'translation-greek', which
really does not count.


-- 
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Subudcat se sibi ut haereat Deo
quidquid boni habet, tribuat illi a quo factus est.
(St. Augustine, Ser. 96)

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