bghilliotti{at}hotmail.com wrote:
> I am studying Psalm 105. Between the various Bibles I have (NIV Study
> Bible, King James Version, and New American Bible: St. Joseph Ed.),
> they have signifigant differences in translation.
>
> For example in the KJV vs 28 says:
>
> "He sent darkness, and made it dark, and they rebelled not against
> their word."
>
> New American translates same the vs as:
>
> "He sent darkness and it grew dark, but they rebelled against their
> word."
>
> NIV Study seems to compromise between the two translations of vs 28:
>
> "He sent darkness and made the land dark, for had they not rebelled
> against their words?"
>
> Which one is it? Which of the three Bibles here has the most accurate
> translation? If none do, which one does?
>
> There are also many other subltle differences.
>
> Take vs 31. KJV says:
>
> "He spake, and there came divers sorts of flies, and lice in all
their
> coasts."
>
> New American says:
>
> "He spake, and there came swarms of flies, gnats through all their
> country"
>
> NIV Study is more or less in agreement with above translation.
>
> So who is right? KJV or New American and NIV Study? If none are,
where
> is an accurate translation?
>
> Thanks in advance for your help.
>

I have no answer for you, but I would like to expand your question if I
may.
What criteria makes a translation/version of the bible accurate or
inaccurate?  In other words if the wording of a verse changes but the
message doesn't, what does that say about a literal interpretation of
the bible?
Bob

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