In article , Bob says...
>
>
>
>
>Matthew Johnson wrote:
>
>> Ever since at least Sts. Augustine and Basil the Great, Christians
>have seen
>> this  switching back and forth as a hint to the Trinity. And the hint
>occurs
>> here precisely because of the special dignity God bestows on Man in
>the Creation
>> of Man. Here as in _no_ other creation, the Trinity is visible.
>
>Which is why I made the comment that one explaination of the change
>from the singular term "God" to the plural term
"we" or "us" could have
>been an addendum from another author. (i.e. early Christians)

No, this is not possible. It is reckless and irresponsible to even suggest it.

>
>Is anyone aware of the Jewish version of the old testament's Genesis?

OF course we are. That is WHY it was so reckless and irresponsible of you to
make your ridiculous, even scurrilous accusation.

>It would be interesting to know if their version of Gen 1:26 reads the
>same.

It does. It reads (following an ad hoc transcription scheme):

WYMR(sg) ELHIM N"SH (ambiguous) ADM BTsLMNU (plural!) KDMNUThNU (plural!)

And don't let the ambiguous from N"SH fool you. The Jews themselves translated
it as "let US make" in the LXX translation of this very verse.
Even Aquila and
Theodotion never disputed the correctness of this translation.


--
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Subudcat se sibi ut haereat Deo
quidquid boni habet, tribuat illi a quo factus est.
(St. Augustine, Ser. 96)

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