I wonder - if you had mostly purine nucleotides
wouldn't that lead to the genetic code in this way?
(with N, purine, N coding = philic and
N, pyrimidine, N coding = phobic.

Let me know what I'm missing or any loopholes that
you see.

1. If anything in the coding separated philic from phobic
amino acids, then you would have  
purine code in RNA = philic amino acids.
And I think odds will do that.

Reasoning
I think that with most RNA first being mostly purine
(which I have suggested) then you will have either:

mostly philic amino acid strands (they work for water
chemistry)

mostly phobic amino acid strands (they would not work
for the water chemistry that's needed first.)

a mix of philic and phobic (they would not work for
the necessary water chemistry though they lend variants
that would lead to phobic chemistry later. SO

Step one then is mostly purine coding = philic amino acids.
Reason - the odds of mostly purine connected with the
more favorable philic amino acids at this point in time.

Step two is connecting pyrimidine coding with phobic aa's

There are much fewer pyrimidines. Thus the few times they
would be in the code they would code for either

pyrimidines = philic (which is wrong)

pyrimidines = phobic (which is correct and ads the 2nd dimension
to the code.

Now we look at both scenarios

Case one:
Purine = philic (see above), with 
some pyrimidines = philic.

The code is all philic or water chemistry, so for
that first stage in life, it doesn't really matter - yet.


Case two:
Purine = philic (see above) with
some pyrimidines = phobic.

This is the code we have now.
And with this coding a strand that has both philic
and phobic aspects in the protein, would have
specific coding for all kinds of variants.
a successful code would be preserved.

Thus coding for purine=philic, and pyrimidine = phobic
would code for the proper philic or phobic amino acids
at the other end.

So overall its part odds, then part chemical selection
on the variants.

Comment?
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