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echo: evolution
to: All
from: John Edser
date: 2004-07-19 17:06:00
subject: Re: Hamilton`s Rule: evad

Joe Felsenstein wrote:-

> >> > JE:-
> >> > .. Hamilton's measure is no better than
> >> > the fraudulent accounting that bankrupted Enron
> >> > where debits became credits.
> >> >....
> >> > Again, I politely request Prof. Felsenstein (the most
> >> > senior poster here) to make a comment on the following
> >> > exchange:

> >> P
> >> as you're evading all rational discussion, why should joe felsenstein
> >> reply:-)
> >>...
> >> P:-
> >> no need to make such an fuss about the issue. what do you think will
> >> people think as you keep rambling on throwing terms such as
"phoney",
> >> "fraudulent" etc like gauntlets onto the floor?

> JF:-
> "Politely request", eh?
> On January 13, in the thread "Re: Hamilton's rule: The High Cost Of A Free
> Lunch" Edser engaged in offensive and ill-tempered insults aimed at me.
> I demanded an apology, and said I would retire from further
> discussion with
> Edser until it was received.  Still waiting, still seeing the same sort of
> invective from Edser (see above for echoes of it).  Not interested in
> any "polite requests" under those circumstances.

JE:-
I am happy to make a public apology to
anybody here who can prove "offensive
and ill-tempered  insults" were specifically
aimed at themselves by myself (JE). This
is an _informal_ discussion group and as
Dr O'Hara remarked, context is everything.
IMHO Prof. Felsenstein has taken my remarks
out of context.

Please note: I am not appealing to Prof. Felsenstein
to make a comment about anything I have written, I
am simply requesting him to make a comment about
Dr O'Hara's (who is a professional colleague)
response because I argue Dr O'Hara's response
was pivotal re: understanding more fully the
logic of Hamilton's rule.

Would Prof. Felsenstein please comment on
Dr O'Hara's reply within the following
exchange:

--------------quote----------------------

1) 22/01/2004:

JE:-
What is the difference between
a reduced positive c and a negative c?
If c was an abolute measure of fitness
then yes, a real difference exists. However
c is only a relative fitness cost and not
an absolute fitness cost, so what is the
difference?

BOH:-

As far as the rule is concerned, none.

----------- end quote --------------------

Regards,

John Edser
Independent Researcher

PO Box 266
Church Pt
NSW 2105
Australia

edser{at}tpg.com.au
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